For a little background, feel free to read this article: http://www.neontommy.com/news/2013/1...al-orientation
The gist of the article is this. According to the new DSM, pedophilia is to be considered a sexual orientation in the Psychology community. This only includes pedophilia in its simplest form, the attraction towards individuals under the age of consent, for lack of better phrasing, without acting upon those urges, and is still to be differentiated from "pedophilic disorder", which is basically acting upon those urges or child molestation.
Being someone who has worked with children for many years, I have some strong feelings about this, but I'd prefer to let others have their say first and I will join in the debate later.
So basically, what I'm asking is, as the thread title says, should pedophilia be considered a sexual orientation in the same way that heterosexuality, homosexuality, asexuality, etc. are, and relatedly, is the change in the DSM right?